(3)
Biomedical Sciences (25%)
1 Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on
the:
a. pyrimidine ring.
b. purine ring.
c. pyrazine ring.
d. pteridine ring.
e. pyridine ring.
2 Enkephalins are peptides that:
a. have narcotic antagonist activity.
b. exert actions resembling those of opiates.
c. are found only in the central nervous system.
d. cause blood vessel wall relaxation.
e. transmit pain impulses.
3 ?-Carotene is the precursor of:
a. retinol.
b. thiamine.
c. calciferol.
d. riboflavin.
e. retinoic acid.
4 An enzyme is:
a. an oligopeptide.
b. a nucleic acid.
c. unable to hydrolyse polysaccharides.
d. a catalyst.
e. changed chemically in a reaction.
5 Diphtheria is caused by:
a. Plasmodium.
b. Vibrio.
c. Shigella.
d. Neisseria.
e. Corynebacterium.
6 Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine
to the liver:
a. haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein.
b. mesenteric vein ? portal vein.
c. haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava.
d. mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery.
e. gastric vein ? hepatic vein.
7 The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the:
I jejunum.
II ileum.
III duodenum.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
8 Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of:
a. acetylcholine in the motor cortex.
b. noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons.
c. gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory pathways.
d. dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway.
e. serotonin in the brain stem.
9 In which of the following organs or tissues is the action of
acetylcholine NOT described as "nicotinic"?
I Motor endplates of skeletal muscle
II Celiac ganglia
III Circular muscles of the iris
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
10 The blood volume of the average adult is approximately:
a. 5 L.
b. 10 L.
c. 15 L.
d. 20 L.
e. 25 L.
11 Diseases which are viral infections include:
I poliomyelitis.
II rabies.
III Legionnaires' disease.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
12 Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include:
I Escherichia coli.
II Haemophilus influenzae.
III Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
13 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is:
I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.
II found primarily in interneurons.
III synthesized from glycine.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
14 All of the following statements are true regarding chronic
inflammation, EXCEPT:
a. it may develop as a granulomatous inflammation.
b. it may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis.
c. it may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid
arthritis.
d. large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate.
e. lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its
development.
Pharmaceutical Sciences (55%)
15 If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4, what approximate fraction of
the drug would be ionized at pH 8.4?
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 90%
e. 100%
16 All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a
parenteral product are correct, EXCEPT:
a. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials.
b. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature.
c. the solute usually forms an amorphous glass.
d. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug
solution.
e. water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation.
17 In cardiovascular physiology, LaPlace's law relates the tension
achieved in a blood vessel wall to:
I the length of the vessel.
II the radius of vessel.
III the intraluminal pressure.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
18 Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, if
the drug:
a. is basic.
b. is protein bound.
c. is acidic but not protein bound.
d. has a small volume of distribution.
e. has a large volume of distribution.
19 Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from
reactions of:
a. glutathione conjugates.
b. glucuronide conjugates.
c. glycine conjugates.
d. glutamate conjugates.
e. sulfate conjugates.
20 Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the:
a. calcium ion channel.
b. sodium ion channel.
c. potassium ion channel.
d. chloride ion channel.
e. nicotinic ion channel.
21 Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic
antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain:
a. aniline and piperidine rings.
b. aniline and piperazine rings.
c. aniline and pyrrolidine rings.
d. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings.
e. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings.
22 Carbon monoxide binds to:
I hemoglobin.
II myoglobin.
III cytochrome oxidase.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
23 Antioxidants, which mechanistically act as reducing agents,
include:
I ascorbic acid.
II sodium bisulfite.
III citric acid.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
24 Diazepam Injection U.S.P
Diazepam 5 mg/ml
Ethanol 10%
Propylene glycol 40%
Benzyl alcohol 1.5%
Water for Injection qs 100%
In the formulation given above, the following ingredient(s) function(s)
as a cosolvent(s):
I ethanol.
II propylene glycol.
III benzyl alcohol.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
25 Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some
bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. They are present in these structures
specifically because of their:
a. sizes and shapes.
b. tautomeric activities.
c. enzymatic activities.
d. electron-donating effects.
e. electron-withdrawing effects.
26 The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order:
a. when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km.
b. when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration.
c. when Vmax is much smaller than Km.
d. when Vmax is much larger than Km.
e. when Km approaches Vmax.
27 With respect to bio*****alence, the parameter “Cmax” is:
a. affected by the extent of absorption only.
b. affected by the rate of absorption only.
c. affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption.
d. affected by both rate and extent of absorption.
e. the only significant parameter.
28 Which of the hydroxyls in the compound above is a tertiary alcohol?
a. Hydroxyl 1
b. Hydroxyl 2
c. Hydroxyl 3
d. Hydroxyl 4
e. Hydroxyls 1 and 2
29 The above structures are related to one another as:
a. bioisosteres.
b. enantiomers.
c. homologs.
d. rotamers.
e. positional (structural) isomers.
30 Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the
following elimination half-lives: 3, 9, 6, 5 and 4 h (hours). The mean
half-life is:
a. 4.0 h.
b. 5.0 h.
c. 5.4 h.
d. 5.8 h.
e. 6.0 h.
31 Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
a. to mask the taste of the drug.
b. to mask the odor of the drug.
c. to improve the appearance of the tablet.
d. to increase the drug's release rate.
e. to protect the drug from stomach acid.
32 Which of the following factors would be important in determining
the concentration of drug that would be reached in the cerebrospinal
fluid for treatment of meningitis?
I Oil/water partition coefficient
II Binding to plasma protein
III pKa of the drug
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
33 Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture?
a. Deliquescence
b. Efflorescence
c. Hygroscopicity
d. Polymorphism
e. Condensation
34 Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of
percutaneous drug absorption include:
I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule.
II the presence of surfactants in the formulation.
III the type of ointment base.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
35 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet
formulation?
a. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet.
b. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily.
c. Binding agents may be added dry or in solution.
d. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst.
e. Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression.
36 Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that:
I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three
carbons removed from the ester oxo group.
II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit
muscarinic activity.
III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced
by an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
37 Which of the following is an azo dye?
a. Hexachlorophene
b. Nitrofurantoin
c. Methenamine
d. Phenazopyridine
e. Nalidixic acid
38 If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal
healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume
that:
a. the drug is extensively metabolized.
b. greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with
moderate renal failure.
c. entero-hepatic recycling is significant.
d. the drug is not bound to plasma proteins.
e. the drug is concentrated in adipose tissue.
39 Approximately 50% of dicloxacillin is excreted unchanged in the
urine. If the normal dosage schedule for dicloxacillin is 125 mg q6h, a
patient with renal function 20% of normal should receive:
a. 25 mg q6h.
b. 31.25 mg q6h.
c. 62.5 mg q6h.
d. 75 mg q6h.
e. 125 mg q12h.
40 Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically
significant pharmacological activity:
a. oxazepam.
b. nitrazepam.
c. diazepam.
d. triazolam.
e. clonazepam.
41 The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following
compound is by hydrolysis. Identify the site which would be most susceptible
to hydrolysis.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
42 Biceps muscles are part of:
I the arm.
II the thigh.
III the rib cage.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
43 The mechanism of antipsychotic effect of phenothiazines is thought
to be due to:
a. improvement of cholinergic transmission.
b. blockade of catecholamine re-uptake.
c. blockade of dopamine receptors.
d. blockade of enkephalinergic neurons.
e. prolactin release.
44 Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)
include:
a. induction of microsomal enzymes.
b. inhibition of microsomal enzymes.
c. inhibition of liposomal enzymes.
d. displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin.
e. enhanced platelet aggregation.
45 All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or
by reflex when injected intravenously into a young healthy adult,
EXCEPT:
a. isoproterenol.
b. histamine.
c. phentolamine.
d. phenylephrine.
e. atropine.
46 Which of the following diuretics is used to block the Na±H+
exchange system of the renal tubule?
a. Furosemide
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Spironolactone
d. Acetazolamide
e. Amiloride
47 Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs
or symptoms, EXCEPT:
a. dry skin.
b. flushed appearance.
c. delirium and restlessness.
d. mydriasis.
e. diarrhea.
48 The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to
act by which of the following mechanisms?
a. Combining with acetylcholine
b. Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase
c. Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase
d. Reacting at the cholinergic receptor
e. Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending
49 The skeletal structure of the hipbone includes the:
I ilium.
II ischium.
III pubis.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
50 Pernicious anemia is:
a. due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12.
b. prevented by oral administration of a vitamin B12 supplement.
c. treated by parenteral administration of folic acid.
d. treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12.
e. caused by dietary iron deficiency.
51 The optic disk is also called the:
a. blind spot.
b. cornea.
c. iris.
d. pupil.
e. macula lutea.
52 Acarbose smooths and lowers:
a. postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of
carbohydrates.
b. postprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of
carbohydrates.
c. preprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of
carbohydrates.
d. preprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of
carbohydrates.
e. preprandial and postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking
absorption of carbohydrates.
53 Autoimmune disorders include which of the following?
I Graves' disease
II Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
III Osteoarthritis
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
54 Acute hemorrhagic gastritis is commonly seen with:
a. chronic alcoholism.
b. H. pylori bacterial infections.
c. carcinoma of the stomach.
d. carcinoma of the colon.
e. Travellers' diarrhea.
55 True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include
which of the following?
I Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy.
II T cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process.
III Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
Questions 56 to 57 inclusive refer to the following:
KJ, a 23 year-old female, is to receive lithium therapy with a regimen
of lithium carbonate 600 mg q8h. The total body clearance of lithium is
0.44 mL/s (1.6 L/h) and the biological half-life is 18 h. The
molecular weight of lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) is 74.
56 The number of millimoles of lithium (Li+1) that KJ will receive
with each dose is:
a. 8
b. 16
c. 24
d. 32
e. 48
57 The number of milli-*****alents of lithium that KJ will receive
with each dose is:
a. 8
b. 16
c. 24
d. 32
e. 48
58 The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor
binding system is determined by:
I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant.
II the free drug concentration.
III the total receptor concentration.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
59 In some parenteral formulations, sodium metabisulphite is included
as:
a. an antioxidant.
b. a chelator.
c. a solubilizer.
d. a cosolvent.
e. an emulsifier.
60 Potassium-sparing diuretics:
I exert their effect in the proximal tubule.
II may cause intracellular alkalosis.
III include the aldosterone antagonists.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
61 Dorzolamide:
I has a sulfonylurea structure.
II has carbonic anhydrase inhibitor activity.
III is useful in the treatment of glaucoma.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
62 True statements regarding transcription include which of the
following?
I The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA
polymerase.
II The genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of
mRNA is translated into a protein structure.
III The information carried in the gene sequence is transferred to
RNA.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
63 Which of the following agents may cause pulmonary toxicity?
I Amiodarone
II Bleomycin
III Ramipril
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
64 An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both
renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the
drug and its active metabolites is:
a. enalapril.
b. fosinopril.
c. lisinopril.
d. quinapril.
e. ramipril.
65 Which of the following agents is NOT associated with the toxic
effect of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
a. Warfarin
b. Cotrimoxazole
c. Amoxicillin
d. Phenobarbital
e. Lamotrigine
66 Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to:
a. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the body.
b. post-antimicrobial effect.
c. enhanced tissue accumulation.
d. reduced renal clearance.
e. higher peak-trough differences.
67 The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in
well-established diagnostic fragmentation patterns that are useful in the
identification of compounds of unknown structure is called:
a. atmospheric pressure chemical ionization (APCI).
b. chemical ionization (CI).
c. electron impact (EI) ionization.
d. electrospray ionization (ESI).
e. fast atom bombardment (FAB) ionization.
Pharmacy Practice (20%)
68 The ethical principle of veracity requires that:
a. we respect the rights of others to make choices.
b. we act with honesty, without deception.
c. we avoid, remove or prevent harm.
d. we do good to patients.
e. we act with fairness.
69 MT, a pharmacy technician, has worked in a community pharmacy for 5
years. He is well-trained and welcomes new learning opportunities. His
manager, now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him,
should:
I discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project.
II negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project.
III provide support and followup as required.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
70 Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects?
a. Calcium carbonate
b. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate
c. Magnesium hydroxide
d. Calcium sulfate
e. Aluminum silicate
71 Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration
of oral contraceptives include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. fluid retention.
b. headache.
c. hypertension.
d. constipation.
e. depression.
72 In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary, the
hospital must consider a drug's efficacy, associated workload, and
acquisition cost. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A, drug B, drug C, and
drug D), all with equal efficacy, have recently become available.
Currently the hospital stocks drug E, which has been available for several
years. Data for the medications is as follows:
DrugCost/DayDosing FrequencyTreatment Duration
(days)A$2.50QID14B$2.25once daily14C$5.00BID7D$2.25BID7E$2 .25QID7 The most appropriate choice
for the hospital is:
a. Drug A.
b. Drug B.
c. Drug C.
d. Drug D.
e. Drug E.
73 When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of
nitrate tolerance, true statements include:
I tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate.
II tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on
metoprolol.
III tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of
nitrate medication.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
74 Which financial statement could be used to determine the total
value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a
year?
a. Balance sheet
b. Statement of investments
c. Statement of changes in financial position
d. Income statement
e. Statement of equity
75 The Latin abbreviation for "before meals" is:
a. ac.
b. aa.
c. pc.
d. ic.
e. cc.
76 Erythromycin:
I is effective against gram-positive cocci.
II is a macrolide antibiotic.
III can increase gastrointestinal tract motility.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
77 Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. If
250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin
is 1.25 g/mL), the concentration of AOT in the solution is:
a. 12.5% w/w.
b. 16.7% w/w.
c. 20.0% w/w.
d. 23.8% w/w.
e. 25.0% w/w.
78 Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume
parenteral should be:
a. sterile water.
b. distilled water.
c. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial
standard).
d. Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard).
e. Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial
standard).
79 The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes
the development of detailed policies and written procedures for
employees to observe at all times is referred to as:
a. autocratic.
b. bureaucratic.
c. participative.
d. benevolent.
e. consultative.
80 The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with:
a. salbutamol.
b. diphenhydramine.
c. adrenaline.
d. acetazolamide.
e. aminophylline.
81 Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n):
a. analgesic agent.
b. antipyretic agent.
c. anti-inflammatory agent.
d. agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid.
e. uricosuric agent.
82 In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, the salicylates:
a. stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement.
b. specifically reverse the cause of the disease.
c. provide only analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.
d. are effective because they are uricosuric agents.
e. are more effective when given with allopurinol.
83 Prednisone may produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT:
a. skeletal muscle weakness.
b. hypoglycemia.
c. sodium retention.
d. peptic ulceration.
e. lowered resistance to infection.
84 In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted
over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome (i.e. prevention of a serious
cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study
sample. In the patients who receive a placebo, only 15% obtain the same
clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug
over the study period is:
a. 10%.
b. 15%.
c. 25%.
d. 40%.
e. 50%.
85 In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted
over 3 years, a specific serious side effect (i.e. reduction in
leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In
patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the
same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients
that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically
demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least
one patient is:
a. 15.
b. 20.
c. 150.
d. 200.
e. 2000.
86 The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets
for a migraine patient. Appropriate information to provide to the
patient includes which of the following?
a. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four
hours, ergotamine may be used.
b. If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be
repeated.
c. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight
hours later, sumatriptan may be used for the second headache.
d. The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets.
e. If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24
hours.
87 Auxiliary labels which should be used on cotrimoxazole suspension
include which of the following?
I Shake well before using.
II Take with plenty of fluids.
III Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
88 A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be
told to store the medication:
a. in the refrigerator.
b. in a plastic vial with a childproof cap.
c. with the original cotton.
d. in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap.
e. in a warm, dry place.
89 Factors that determine bio*****alence of two brands of a drug
include:
I the taste of the preparations.
II the physical appearance of the preparations.
III pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
90
Rx Timolol 0.25% drops
Mitte: 15 mL
Sig: gtt. i o.d. BID
On the prescription label the instructions to the patient should read:
a. apply one drop into both eyes twice daily.
b. instil one drop into the left eye twice daily.
c. instil one drop into the right eye twice daily.
d. shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice daily.
e. shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice daily.
91 Following the ethical principle of nonmaleficence requires that
pharmacists:
a. respect the rights of patients to make choices.
b. do good to patients, placing the benefit of the patient above all
else.
c. avoid, remove or prevent harm from people.
d. act with fairness, allowing people access to pharmacy care.
e. act with honesty, without deception.
92 Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because
it:
I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds.
II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction.
III decreases the force of myocardial contraction.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
93 The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy:
Losec® 20 mg
S: Take 1 tab BID
M: 2 weeks
Which of the following is correct labelling for this prescription?
a. Take one tablet twice weekly (28 tablets).
b. Take one tablet twice weekly (4 tablets).
c. Take two tablets twice daily (56 tablets).
d. Take one tablet twice daily (28 tablets).
e. Take one tablet twice daily (14 tablets)
The next section includes an EXAMPLE OF THE CASE SCENARIO FORMAT, in
which there are two or more questions in sequence, that are related to
the patient information provided in the (bolded) stem shown at the top of
the case.
When choosing your response to questions in the case scenario format,
you must base your choice on the patient-specific information presented
in the case.
Questions 94 to 96 inclusive refer to the following:
SM is a 34 year old female who, while vacationing in Mexico, began
prophylactic treatment for Travellers' Diarrhea. Shortly thereafter she
complained of a feeling of fullness in her ears, black stools and a black
tongue. SM’s previous history includes an allergy to sulfonamides.
94 Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM's complaints?
a. Bismuth subsalicylate
b. Cotrimoxazole
c. Doxycycline
d. Amoxicillin
e. Loperamide
95 Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Traveller's Diarrhea
include:
I Bacteroides fragilis.
II Escherichia coli.
III Shigella sp.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
96 Drugs shown to be effective in the prevention of Travellers'
Diarrhea, which might have been prescribed for SM include:
I doxycycline.
II cotrimoxazole.
III amoxicillin.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
Answers
Evaluating Examination Sample Questions
The following sample questions are not intended or designed to be a
sample examination, and do not represent an exact model of the Evaluating
Examination in terms of difficulty and proportion of topics. However,
individually, these questions are intended to be representative, in
format and phrasing style, of the types of questions found on the
Evaluating Examination. They also illustrate a variety of the subject areas
contained in the examination blueprint. Please note that these questions
are reviewed and updated periodically.
Biomedical Sciences
1 Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on
the:
a. pyrimidine ring.
b. purine ring.
c. pyrazine ring.
*d. pteridine ring.
e. pyridine ring.
2 Enkephalins are peptides that:
a. have narcotic antagonist activity.
*b. exert actions resembling those of opiates.
c. are found only in the central nervous system.
d. cause blood vessel wall relaxation.
e. transmit pain impulses.
3 ?-Carotene is the precursor of:
*a. retinol.
b. thiamine.
c. calciferol.
d. riboflavin.
e. retinoic acid.
4 An enzyme is:
a. an oligopeptide.
b. a nucleic acid.
c. unable to hydrolyse polysaccharides.
*d. a catalyst.
e. changed chemically in a reaction.
5 Diphtheria is caused by:
a. Plasmodium.
b. Vibrio.
c. Shigella.
d. Neisseria.
*e. Corynebacterium.
6 Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine
to the liver:
a. haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein.
*b. mesenteric vein ? portal vein.
c. haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava.
d. mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery.
e. gastric vein ? hepatic vein.
7 The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the:
*I jejunum.
*II ileum.
*III duodenum.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
*e. I, II and III
8 Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of:
a. acetylcholine in the motor cortex.
b. noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons.
c. gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory pathways.
*d. dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway.
e. serotonin in the brain stem.
9 In which of the following organs or tissues is the action of
acetylcholine NOT described as "nicotinic"?
I Motor endplates of skeletal muscle
II Celiac ganglia
*III Circular muscles of the iris
a. I only
*b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
10 The blood volume of the average adult is approximately:
*a. 5 L.
b. 10 L.
c. 15 L.
d. 20 L.
e. 25 L.
11 Diseases which are viral infections include:
*I poliomyelitis.
*II rabies.
III Legionnaires' disease.
a. I only
b. III only
*c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
12 Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include:
I Escherichia coli.
*II Haemophilus influenzae.
*III Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
*d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
13 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is:
*I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.
*II found primarily in interneurons.
III synthesized from glycine.
a. I only
b. III only
*c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
14 All of the following statements are true regarding chronic
inflammation, EXCEPT:
a. it may develop as a granulomatous inflammation.
b. it may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis.
c. it may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid
arthritis.
d. large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate.
*e. lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development.
Pharmaceutical Sciences
15 If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4, what approximate fraction of
the drug would be ionized at pH 8.4?
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
*d. 90%
e. 100%
16 All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a
parenteral product are correct, EXCEPT:
a. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials.
b. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature.
c. the solute usually forms an amorphous glass.
*d. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug
solution.
e. water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation.
17 In cardiovascular physiology, LaPlace's law relates the tension
achieved in a blood vessel wall to:
I the length of the vessel.
*II the radius of vessel.
*III the intraluminal pressure.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
*d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
18 Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, if
the drug:
*a. is basic.
b. is protein bound.
c. is acidic but not protein bound.
d. has a small volume of distribution.
e. has a large volume of distribution.
19 Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from
reactions of:
*a. glutathione conjugates.
b. glucuronide conjugates.
c. glycine conjugates.
d. glutamate conjugates.
e. sulfate conjugates.
20 Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the:
a. calcium ion channel.
*b. sodium ion channel.
c. potassium ion channel.
d. chloride ion channel.
e. nicotinic ion channel.
21 Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic
antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain:
a. aniline and piperidine rings.
b. aniline and piperazine rings.
c. aniline and pyrrolidine rings.
d. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings.
*e. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings.
22 Carbon monoxide binds to:
*I hemoglobin.
*II myoglobin.
*III cytochrome oxidase.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
*e. I, II and III
23 Antioxidants, which mechanistically act as reducing agents,
include:
*I ascorbic acid.
*II sodium bisulfite.
III citric acid.
a. I only
b. III only
*c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
24 Diazepam Injection U.S.P
Diazepam 5 mg/ml
Ethanol 10%
Propylene glycol 40%
Benzyl alcohol 1.5%
Water for Injection qs 100%
In the formulation given above, the following ingredient(s) function(s)
as a cosolvent(s):
*I ethanol.
*II propylene glycol.
III benzyl alcohol.
a. I only
b. III only
*c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
25 Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some
bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. They are present in these structures
specifically because of their:
a. sizes and shapes.
b. tautomeric activities.
c. enzymatic activities.
d. electron-donating effects.
*e. electron-withdrawing effects.
26 The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order:
*a. when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km.
b. when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration.
c. when Vmax is much smaller than Km.
d. when Vmax is much larger than Km.
e. when Km approaches Vmax.
27 With respect to bio*****alence, the parameter “Cmax” is:
a. affected by the extent of absorption only.
b. affected by the rate of absorption only.
c. affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption.
*d. affected by both rate and extent of absorption.
e. the only significant parameter.
28
Which of the hydroxyls in the compound above is a tertiary alcohol?
a. Hydroxyl 1
*b. Hydroxyl 2
c. Hydroxyl 3
d. Hydroxyl 4
e. Hydroxyls 1 and 2
29
The above structures are related to one another as:
a. bioisosteres.
b. enantiomers.
*c. homologs.
d. rotamers.
e. positional (structural) isomers.
30 Five subjects given a single intravenous dose of a drug have the
following elimination half-lives: 3, 9, 6, 5 and 4 h (hours). The mean
half-life is:
a. 4.0 h.
b. 5.0 h.
*c. 5.4 h.
d. 5.8 h.
e. 6.0 h.
31 Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
a. to mask the taste of the drug.
b. to mask the odor of the drug.
c. to improve the appearance of the tablet.
*d. to increase the drug's release rate.
e. to protect the drug from stomach acid.
32 Which of the following factors would be important in determining
the concentration of drug that would be reached in the cerebrospinal
fluid for treatment of meningitis?
*I Oil/water partition coefficient
*II Binding to plasma protein
*III pKa of the drug
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
*e. I, II and III
33 Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture?
a. Deliquescence
*b. Efflorescence
c. Hygroscopicity
d. Polymorphism
e. Condensation
34 Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of
percutaneous drug absorption include:
*I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule.
*II the presence of surfactants in the formulation.
*III the type of ointment base.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
*e. I, II and III
35 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet
formulation?
a. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet.
*b. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily.
c. Binding agents may be added dry or in solution.
d. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst.
e. Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression.
36 Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that:
I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three
carbons removed from the ester oxo group.
*II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit
muscarinic activity.
*III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by
an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
*d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
37 Which of the following is an azo dye?
a. Hexachlorophene
b. Nitrofurantoin
c. Methenamine
*d. Phenazopyridine
e. Nalidixic acid
38 If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal
healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume
that:
*a. the drug is extensively metabolized.
b. greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with
moderate renal failure.
c. entero-hepatic recycling is significant.
d. the drug is not bound to plasma proteins.
e. the drug is concentrated in adipose tissue.
39 Approximately 50% of dicloxacillin is excreted unchanged in the
urine. If the normal dosage schedule for dicloxacillin is 125 mg q6h, a
patient with renal function 20% of normal should receive:
a. 25 mg q6h.
b. 31.25 mg q6h.
c. 62.5 mg q6h.
*d. 75 mg q6h.
e. 125 mg q12h.
40 Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically
significant pharmacological activity:
a. oxazepam.
b. nitrazepam.
*c. diazepam.
d. triazolam.
e. clonazepam.
41 The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following
compound is by hydrolysis. Identify the site which would be most susceptible
to hydrolysis.
a. A
b. B
*c. C
d. D
e. E
42 Biceps muscles are part of:
*I the arm.
*II the thigh.
III the rib cage.
a. I only
b. III only
*c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
43 The mechanism of antipsychotic effect of phenothiazines is thought
to be due to:
a. improvement of cholinergic transmission.
b. blockade of catecholamine re-uptake.
*c. blockade of dopamine receptors.
d. blockade of enkephalinergic neurons.
e. prolactin release.
44 Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)
include:
a. induction of microsomal enzymes.
b. inhibition of microsomal enzymes.
c. inhibition of liposomal enzymes.
*d. displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin.
e. enhanced platelet aggregation.
45 All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or
by reflex when injected intravenously into a young healthy adult,
EXCEPT:
a. isoproterenol.
b. histamine.
c. phentolamine.
*d. phenylephrine.
e. atropine.
46 Which of the following diuretics is used to block the Na±H+
exchange system of the renal tubule?
a. Furosemide
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Spironolactone
*d. Acetazolamide
e. Amiloride
47 Atropine poisoning can be recognized by all of the following signs
or symptoms, EXCEPT:
a. dry skin.
b. flushed appearance.
c. delirium and restlessness.
d. mydriasis.
*e. diarrhea.
48 The organophosphates commonly found in insecticides are thought to
act by which of the following mechanisms?
a. Combining with acetylcholine
b. Potentiating the action of acetylcholinesterase
*c. Forming a very stable complex with acetylcholinesterase
d. Reacting at the cholinergic receptor
e. Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the nerve ending
49 The skeletal structure of the hipbone includes the:
*I ilium.
*II ischium.
*III pubis.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
*e. I, II and III
50 Pernicious anemia is:
a. due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12.
b. prevented by oral administration of a vitamin B12 supplement.
c. treated by parenteral administration of folic acid.
*d. treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12.
e. caused by dietary iron deficiency.
51 The optic disk is also called the:
*a. blind spot.
b. cornea.
c. iris.
d. pupil.
e. macula lutea.
52 Acarbose smooths and lowers:
a. postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of
carbohydrates.
*b. postprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of
carbohydrates.
c. preprandial blood glucose levels by blocking absorption of
carbohydrates.
d. preprandial blood glucose levels by delaying absorption of
carbohydrates.
e. preprandial and postprandial blood glucose levels by blocking
absorption of carbohydrates.
53 Autoimmune disorders include which of the following?
*I Graves' disease
*II Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
III Osteoarthritis
a. I only
b. III only
*c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
54 Acute hemorrhagic gastritis is commonly seen with:
*a. chronic alcoholism.
b. H. pylori bacterial infections.
c. carcinoma of the stomach.
d. carcinoma of the colon.
e. Travellers' diarrhea.
55 True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include
which of the following?
*I Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy.
*II T cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process.
III Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product.
a. I only
b. III only
*c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
Questions 56 to 57 inclusive refer to the following:
KJ, a 23 year-old female, is to receive lithium therapy with a regimen
of lithium carbonate 600 mg q8h. The total body clearance of lithium is
0.44 mL/s (1.6 L/h) and the biological half-life is 18 h. The
molecular weight of lithium carbonate (Li2CO3) is 74.
56 The number of millimoles of lithium (Li+1) that KJ will receive
with each dose is:
a. 8
*b. 16
c. 24
d. 32
e. 48
57 The number of milli-*****alents of lithium that KJ will receive
with each dose is:
a. 8
*b. 16
c. 24
d. 32
e. 48
58 The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor
binding system is determined by:
*I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant.
*II the free drug concentration.
III the total receptor concentration.
a. I only
b. III only
*c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
59 In some parenteral formulations, sodium metabisulphite is included
as:
*a. an antioxidant.
b. a chelator.
c. a solubilizer.
d. a cosolvent.
e. an emulsifier.
60 Potassium-sparing diuretics:
I exert their effect in the proximal tubule.
*II may cause intracellular alkalosis.
*III include the aldosterone antagonists.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
*d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
61 Dorzolamide:
I has a sulfonylurea structure.
*II has carbonic anhydrase inhibitor activity.
*III is useful in the treatment of glaucoma.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
*d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
62 True statements regarding transcription include which of the
following?
*I The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA
polymerase.
*II The genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of
mRNA is translated into a protein structure.
*III The information carried in the gene sequence is transferred to
RNA.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
*e. I, II and III
63 Which of the following agents may cause pulmonary toxicity?
*I Amiodarone
*II Bleomycin
III Ramipril
a. I only
b. III only
*c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
64 An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both
renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the
drug and its active metabolites is:
a. enalapril.
*b. fosinopril.
c. lisinopril.
d. quinapril.
e. ramipril.
65 Which of the following agents is NOT associated with the toxic
effect of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
a. Warfarin
b. Cotrimoxazole
*c. Amoxicillin
d. Phenobarbital
e. Lamotrigine
66 Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to:
a. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the body.
*b. post-antimicrobial effect.
c. enhanced tissue accumulation.
d. reduced renal clearance.
e. higher peak-trough differences.
67 The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in
well-established diagnostic fragmentation patterns that are useful in the
identification of compounds of unknown structure is called:
a. atmospheric pressure chemical ionization (APCI).
b. chemical ionization (CI).
*c. electron impact (EI) ionization.
d. electrospray ionization (ESI).
e. fast atom bombardment (FAB) ionization.
Pharmacy Practice
68 The ethical principle of veracity requires that:
a. we respect the rights of others to make choices.
*b. we act with honesty, without deception.
c. we avoid, remove or prevent harm.
d. we do good to patients.
e. we act with fairness.
69 MT, a pharmacy technician, has worked in a community pharmacy for 5
years. He is well-trained and welcomes new learning opportunities. His
manager, now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him,
should:
*I discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project.
*II negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project.
*III provide support and followup as required.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
*e. I, II and III
70 Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects?
a. Calcium carbonate
b. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate
*c. Magnesium hydroxide
d. Calcium sulfate
e. Aluminum silicate
71 Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration
of oral contraceptives include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. fluid retention.
b. headache.
c. hypertension.
*d. constipation.
e. depression.
72 In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary, the
hospital must consider a drug's efficacy, associated workload, and
acquisition cost. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A, drug B, drug C, and
drug D), all with equal efficacy, have recently become available.
Currently the hospital stocks drug E, which has been available for several
years. Data for the medications is as follows:
DrugCost/DayDosing FrequencyTreatment Duration
(days)A$2.50QID14B$2.25once daily14C$5.00BID7D$2.25BID7E$2 .25QID7The most appropriate choice
for the hospital is:
a. Drug A.
b. Drug B.
c. Drug C.
*d. Drug D.
e. Drug E.
73 When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of
nitrate tolerance, true statements include:
I tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate.
II tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on
metoprolol.
*III tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate
medication.
a. I only
*b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
74 Which financial statement could be used to determine the total
value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a
year?
a. Balance sheet
b. Statement of investments
c. Statement of changes in financial position
*d. Income statement
e. Statement of equity
75 The Latin abbreviation for "before meals" is:
*a. ac.
b. aa.
c. pc.
d. ic.
e. cc.
76 Erythromycin:
*I is effective against gram-positive cocci.
*II is a macrolide antibiotic.
*III can increase gastrointestinal tract motility.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
*e. I, II and III
77 Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. If
250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin
is 1.25 g/mL), the concentration of AOT in the solution is:
a. 12.5% w/w.
*b. 16.7% w/w.
c. 20.0% w/w.
d. 23.8% w/w.
e. 25.0% w/w.
78 Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume
parenteral should be:
a. sterile water.
b. distilled water.
c. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial
standard).
d. Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard).
*e. Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard).
79 The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes
the development of detailed policies and written procedures for
employees to observe at all times is referred to as:
a. autocratic.
*b. bureaucratic.
c. participative.
d. benevolent.
e. consultative.
80 The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with:
a. salbutamol.
b. diphenhydramine.
*c. adrenaline.
d. acetazolamide.
e. aminophylline.
81 Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n):
a. analgesic agent.
b. antipyretic agent.
c. anti-inflammatory agent.
d. agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid.
*e. uricosuric agent.
82 In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, the salicylates:
a. stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement.
b. specifically reverse the cause of the disease.
*c. provide only analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.
d. are effective because they are uricosuric agents.
e. are more effective when given with allopurinol.
83 Prednisone may produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT:
a. skeletal muscle weakness.
*b. hypoglycemia.
c. sodium retention.
d. peptic ulceration.
e. lowered resistance to infection.
84 In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted
over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome (i.e. prevention of a serious
cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study
sample. In the patients who receive a placebo, only 15% obtain the same
clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug
over the study period is:
a. 10%.
b. 15%.
c. 25%.
*d. 40%.
e. 50%.
85 In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted
over 3 years, a specific serious side effect (i.e. reduction in
leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In
patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the
same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients
that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically
demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least
one patient is:
a. 15.
b. 20.
c. 150.
d. 200.
*e. 2000.
86 The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets
for a migraine patient. Appropriate information to provide to the
patient includes which of the following?
a. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four
hours, ergotamine may be used.
b. If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be
repeated.
*c. If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours
later, sumatriptan may be used for the second headache.
d. The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets.
e. If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24
hours.
87 Auxiliary labels which should be used on cotrimoxazole suspension
include which of the following?
*I Shake well before using.
*II Take with plenty of fluids.
*III Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
*e. I, II and III
88 A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be
told to store the medication:
a. in the refrigerator.
b. in a plastic vial with a childproof cap.
c. with the original cotton.
*d. in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap.
e. in a warm, dry place.
89 Factors that determine bio*****alence of two brands of a drug
include:
I the taste of the preparations.
II the physical appearance of the preparations.
*III pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations.
a. I only
*b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
90
Rx Timolol 0.25% dropsMitte: 15 mLSig: gtt. i o.d. BIDOn the
prescription label the instructions to the patient should read:
a. apply one drop into both eyes twice daily.
b. instil one drop into the left eye twice daily.
*c. instil one drop into the right eye twice daily.
d. shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice daily.
e. shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice daily.
91 Following the ethical principle of nonmaleficence requires that
pharmacists:
a. respect the rights of patients to make choices.
b. do good to patients, placing the benefit of the patient above all
else.
*c. avoid, remove or prevent harm from people.
d. act with fairness, allowing people access to pharmacy care.
e. act with honesty, without deception.
92 Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because
it:
*I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds.
II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction.
III decreases the force of myocardial contraction.
*a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
93 The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy:
Losec® 20 mg
S: Take 1 tab BID
M: 2 weeks
Which of the following is correct labelling for this prescription?
a. Take one tablet twice weekly (28 tablets).
b. Take one tablet twice weekly (4 tablets).
c. Take two tablets twice daily (56 tablets).
*d. Take one tablet twice daily (28 tablets).
e. Take one tablet twice daily (14 tablets)
The next section includes an EXAMPLE OF THE CASE SCENARIO FORMAT, in
which there are two or more questions in sequence, that are related to
the patient information provided in the (bolded) stem shown at the top of
the case.
When choosing your response to questions in the case scenario format,
you must base your choice on the patient-specific information presented
in the case.
Questions 94 to 96 inclusive refer to the following:
SM is a 34 year old female who, while vacationing in Mexico, began
prophylactic treatment for Travellers' Diarrhea. Shortly thereafter she
complained of a feeling of fullness in her ears, black stools and a black
tongue. SM’s previous history includes an allergy to sulfonamides.
94 Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM's complaints?
*a. Bismuth subsalicylate
b. Cotrimoxazole
c. Doxycycline
d. Amoxicillin
e. Loperamide
95 Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Traveller's Diarrhea
include:
I Bacteroides fragilis.
*II Escherichia coli.
*III Shigella sp.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
*d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
96 Drugs shown to be effective in the prevention of Travellers'
Diarrhea, which might have been prescribed for SM include:
*I doxycycline.
II cotrimoxazole.
III amoxicillin.
*a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
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5000 سؤال للبورد الكندي
العرض العادي
